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<article>

<front>

<figgrp>
<title>Logo</title>
<fig name="surfaces">
</figgrp>

<titlegrp>
<title>Jacques Derrida's "Des
humanit&eacute;s et de la
discipline
philosophique"/"Of the
Humanities and
Philosophical Disciplines"</title>
<subtitle>Roundtable Discussion</subtitle>
</titlegrp>

<authgrp>
<author>
<fname>Hazard</fname>
<surname>Adams</surname>
</author>

<author>
<fname>Ernst</fname>
<surname>Behler</surname>
</author>

<author>
<fname>Hendrick</fname>
<surname>Birus</surname>
</author>

<author>
<fname>Jacques</fname>
<surname>Derrida</surname>
</author>

<author>
<fname>Wolfgang</fname>
<surname>Iser</surname>
</author>

<author>
<fname>Murray</fname>
<surname>Krieger</surname>
</author>

<author>
<fname>Hillis</fname>
<surname>Miller</surname>
</author>

<author>
<fname>Ludwig</fname>
<surname>Pfeiffer</surname>
</author>

<author>
<fname>Bill</fname>
<surname>Readings</surname>
</author>

<author>
<fname>Ching-hsien</fname>
<surname>Wang</surname>
</author>

<author>
<fname>Pauline</fname>
<surname>Yu</surname>
</author>
</authgrp>


<pubfront>

<artid><emph type="3">Surfaces</emph> Vol. VI.108 (v.1.0A - 16/08/1996)</artid>

<cpyrt>
<cpyrtnme>
<orgname>Copyright for texts published in <emph type="3">Surfaces</emph> remains the property of authors. However, any further publication should be accompanied by an acknowledgement of <emph type="3">Surfaces</emph> as the place of initial publication.</orgname>
</cpyrtnme>
</cpyrt>

<issn>1188-2492</issn>

</pubfront>

<abstract>
<title>ABSTRACT</title>
<p>This roundtable discussion of <a href="http://pum12.pum.umontreal.ca/revues/surfaces/sgml/vol4/derridaf.sgml">"Des
humanit&eacute;s et de la discipline philosophique"</a> (<a href="http://pum12.pum.umontreal.ca/revues/surfaces/sgml/vol4/derridaa.sgml">"Of the
Humanities and Philosophical Disciplines"</a>), Jacques
Derrida's contribution to the first International
Conference for Humanistic Discourses, was held in
April, 1994.  The papers of this first meeting of the
ICHD have been published in volume 4 of <emph type="2">Surfaces</emph> (1994).</p>
</abstract>

<abstract>
<title>R&Eacute;SUM&Eacute;</title>
<p>Ces discussions autour du texte de Jacques
Derrida, <a href="http://pum12.pum.umontreal.ca/revues/surfaces/sgml/vol4/derridaf.sgml">"Des humanit&eacute;s et de la discipline
philosophique"</a> (<a href="http://pum12.pum.umontreal.ca/revues/surfaces/sgml/vol4/derridaa.sgml">"Of the Humanities and Philosophical
Disciplines"</a>), ont eu lieu en avril 1994, dans le cadre
du premier Congr&egrave;s sur le Discours Humaniste.  Les
communications de cette premi&egrave;re r&eacute;union du
Congr&egrave;s ont &eacute;t&eacute; publi&eacute;es dans le volume 4 de
<emph type="2">Surfaces</emph> (1994).</p>
</abstract>

</front>


<body>

<section>

<p><author><surname>Behler</surname></author>
I'm pleased to open the last session, and to
ask the last presenter to speak to us. This, is of
course, not because it is the last session and the last
presenter, but because it is Jacques, who has had an
extraordinary presence at our conference, not only
through his remarks and observations to individual
papers, but also an intellectual presence in many of
the papers presented here.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Thank you, Ernst. I won't summarize the
paper. I'm not good at that, and then I think it's
better for me to go around the paper and justify it, if
possible. It was under another form initially when
delivered at the UNESCO in Paris. As you probably
know, there is the problem of philosophy being a part
of this institution, and its history from the beginning of
the UNESCO. So why did I choose to adapt, adjust it
here? Three points, and I'll try and be brief. First,
should I apologize for having left my paper in
French? I should, of course. But on the other hand, I
think that seeing the problem of language, and
especially of the dominant and excluded languages is
already alluded to by Kant and in the paper, in
different ways. I wanted to effectively, performatively,
let's say, ask the question, why read my text in
French? Now, if I do so, it's not a matter of, let's
say, antagonism or anti-Americanism, or some well
known opposition to the current linguistical, political
hegemony of English, American English. It's because,
on the one hand, I think that, our conference, our
project, bears witness to that the Anglo-American is
and will remain our medium in our discussions. Why
is it so? How can we account for that? Usually,
although it's a well known phenomenon that today
Anglo-American is the universal language, the only
universal language effectively, the reasons why it is so
are not clear, not simply a question of political or
economic power. We should account for that, and
have responsible answers to this current hegemony. I
say this all the more in the spirit of, let's say,
friendship to Anglo-American language, but I think
that this hegemony is even a problem for the
Anglo-American speakers. Each time I have to enter
this debate (we all have to do that), I insist on the
fact that the threat, if there is a threat, is not only a
threat to other languages. It's also a threat to English,
to some experience of English.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;5-6/</pages>
</p>

<p>Second point. I thought I should put philosophy
on the table because so far it's literature which has
been privileged. So my questions about philosophy in
this context are seven. First, as a discipline, as a
discipline. Can we say that philosophy as a discipline
is part of the humanities, or not? Is philosophy part
of a culture, of what one calls "culture"? As you
know, there is in philosophy, especially in twentieth
century philosophy, an objection to the inclusion of it
in the space of culture. Heidegger, for instance, would
say, well, philosophy is not a cultural phenomenon.
When we speak of culture, we have immediately to
do with multiple differences in history, in the history
of in the arts, and so on and so forth, whereas
philosophy is like science, in that the project of
philosophy is, as a project, universal. To that extent,
philosophy doesn't belong to a culture. I don't share
this view. There are cultural aspects of philosophy, but
philosophy is not a cultural phenomenon. Then, always
considering philosophy as a discipline, we all know
here (all of us have been privy to this fact) that
philosophy, especially German philosophy in the late
nineteenth century, has played a major role in the
construction of the model of the university. So in
order to refer to this philosophical structure of the
model of the university, in the same way, I wanted to
emphasize the fact that the very concept of this
international institution is philosophical through and
through. That is, the concept, the charter, the
constitution of the UNESCO is grounded on
philosophical concepts, philosophical European
concepts, and that's why it's a philosophical institution.
So I think we have to interpret, to analyze the history
of the academic models in Europe, in the States, in
the world, from a philosophical point of view. Then as
to philosophy as a discipline. As we know, the place
and the extension given philosophy in different
cultures, and even in the West, in different nations,
different systems of education, are different, but they
have something in common today. This is something
philosophy has in common with all the humanities: 
the reduction of the space, reduction of money,
reduction of the power, because philosophy supposed
to be useless in our industrial societies, and it's a
matter of a political struggle. In my own country, we
constantly are fighting and struggling against the
reduction of the philosophical space in the high
schools (in France, philosophy starts in the high 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;6-7/</pages>
 schools), and of course in the universities. Then
my second point, philosophy not as a discipline, but
philosophy as the implied or supposed authority in
what we referred to yesterday or the day before
yesterday as <emph type="2">Begriffsgeschichte</emph>. Of course, it's not
necessarily a philosophical project, but we know that
implicitly the history of concepts is philosophically
structured, and the authority for the history of the
concepts (especially the concepts we are dealing with
&mdash; culture, translation, is in principle philosophical. A
third sub-point:  philosophy is supposed to be the
place from which one defines (and this is not only a
matter of <emph type="2">Begriffsgeschichte</emph>), one defines the concepts
of man, humanity, what is man, what are the
transformations of the concept of man today, what is
humanism &mdash; all these questions are philosophical
through and through, and we have to, even if we
disagree with philosophical claims or philosophical
interpretations about this, we have to face this
philosophical claim about these concepts. And this is
perhaps the most important point to me within the
second point: the relationship between philosophy and
natural languages, European languages. And I try in
my paper to avoid the opposition between two
symmetrical temptations, one being to say rapidly that
of course philosophy is something universal. Today it's
a well-known phenomenon &mdash; there is a Chinese
philosophy, a Japanese philosophy and so on and so
forth. That's a contention I would resist. I think there
is something specifically European, specifically Greek
in philosophy to simply say that philosophy is
something universal. Now saying this, I think that
every kind of thinking, thought, is philosophical. I will
distinguish philosophy and <emph type="2">Denken</emph>, thinking. Philosophy
is a way of thinking. It's not science. It's not thinking
in general. So when I say, well, philosophy has some
privileged relationship with Europe, I don't say this
European-centrically but to take seriously history.
That's one temptation, to say philosophy is universal.
The other temptation would be the one I just
sketched:  well, philosophy has only one origin, a
single pure origin that is its foundation, its institution,
through a number of grounding concepts which are
linked to Greek language, and we have to keep this
in memory and go constantly back to Greece and
back to this Greek origin, European, through
anamnesis, through memory, to what philosophy is.
This is a symmetrical 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;7-8/</pages>
  temptation which I
would like to avoid. So what I propose is another
model:  that is, while keeping in memory this
European, Greek origin of philosophy, and the
European history of philosophy, take into account that
there are events, philosophical events, which cannot be
reduced to this single origin, and which mean that the
origin itself was not simple, that the phenomenon of
hybridization, of graft, or translation, was there from
the beginning, so we have to analyze the different
philosophical events today, in Europe and outside of
Europe. This avoids at the same time Eurocentrism
and simple-minded anti-Eurocentrism. That would be
the last sub-point in the second point.</p>

<p>And the last, the very last point, would have to
do with philosophy and literature. Why then choose this
among other things? There are many reasons for this
choice, but I won't summarize them now. I'm thinking
of the reference that Kant makes to the <emph type="2">Roman</emph>, and
the way he tried to distinguish between philosophy
and the novel. And we have here a classical
philosophical gesture in the philosophical exclusion of
literature, philosophy becoming what it is or what it
should be by simply avoiding literature. That's why
I've chosen this text. The way (that's what I say,
page nine) the way Kant tries to avoid literature, or
novel, <emph type="2">Roman</emph>, is precisely the reference to the Greek
history, when he says (page eight), when he says, "In
order to contradict this Romanesque hypothesis and to
think the human history, beyond the novel, as a
system and not simply as an <emph type="2">agregat sans plan</emph>, a
programless aggregation, or composition, then we have
to follow the living thread of Greek history, the only
one," he says, "which (<emph type="2">transmette</emph>) transfers or
translates all the other histories which have been prior
or contemporaneous..." So it's again through reference
to the Greek origin that Kant claims that indeed one
can, of course, purify philosophy from literature. And I
think this might be one of the places for discussion
here.</p>

<p><author><surname>Behler</surname></author>
Well, my task is now to respond to you, and
I will do this by outlining a number of topics we
might like to discuss and to which you might like to
respond, but I will also refer back to your paper &mdash;
not by way of summarizing it, just by picking 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;8-9/</pages>
 something here and there. And what I consider
most important in the first place (it would be my first
point) in your paper and in your presentation is that it
puts philosophy onto the agenda for a group that is
usually inclined to deny the difference between
philosophy and literature. Of course, what you
articulate is a special type of philosophy. It is not the
systematic type of philosophy as Kant develops it in
his <emph type="2">Critiques</emph>. It is more philosophy in the sense of
his popular writings, namely, the writings on faculties,
on history, that is a type of philosophy that he
himself defines as "<emph type="2">Weltweisheit</emph>," "world wisdom." This
philosophy speculates about things that, according to
the <emph type="2">Critique</emph>, are forbidden to speculate about. You
cannot speculate about the end of history or the
further course of history, because that's a transcendent
use of reason. In these texts, Kant does it nevertheless,
although the first <emph type="2">Critique</emph> forbids it.</p>

<p>And how does he do it? (And this is perhaps a
second point). I want to say that the reason literature
does not show up in this text is that literature is not
in his purview. He is not concerned with literature.
When he talks about education (and education is an
essential matter in these essays), it is philosophy that
does education. You still have this idea in Hegel, in
Hegel's <emph type="2">Encyclopedia</emph>:  education is done by
philosophy. Literature is too multifaceted and might
confuse the mind of the student, whereas philosophy
goes straight to the subject matter. How does
philosophy proceed in the case of Kant? With an
utmost attempt at self-criticism. The end state of
history, the cosmopolitan state, is not just around the
corner. This is a long, arduous process in which we
are involved. Kant uses terms like "infinite progress,"
progress without end, for that. Only toward the end
can we vaguely perceive what will come. This is what
Kant puts in as self-critique of his own attempt. It's
arduous. You have described this on the basis of the
model of nature. Hegel calls it "<emph type="2">schlechte
Unendlichkeit</emph>," "bad infinity," "poor infinity," because it
does not articulate itself, it does not come to an end.
The final state of cosmopolitanism is never there, it's
in the process of becoming and will perhaps never be
achieved. This is an important point, in my opinion,
which is also contributing to the overcoming of
Eurocentrism and of finding a position beyond what
you call the antithesis of 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;9-10/</pages>
 Eurocentrism, that
is, an anti-Eurocentrism. It's precisely this moment of
eternal becoming, I would say, that matters for Kant.
Let me describe this a bit. Kant would say (these are
my words) yes, I am Eurocentric. Yes, I am deriving
from Greek history and I am nationalistic. However, I
have now reached a point in history when this
appears to be over, when the moment has come to
turn cosmopolitan, and to turn away from nationalism.
However, this won't be achieved in one moment. This
will be an infinite process, and during the course of
this process, we will always encounter new hindrances,
new obstacles which we have to overcome. This is how
I would try to rephrase Kant's attempt at overcoming
Eurocentrism, namely, by describing a process that is
infinitely going on. One last point:  page fifteen, the
"development of all originary faculties, or dispositions,
of the human mind." This state is not just to be
enjoyed socially for Kant. No, that would be Hegelian,
or Marxist. This state is also to be enjoyed on the
individual level. The development of all the
potentialities of the individual is of course also for the
benefit of the infinite process. These are some of the
themes that I would like to articulate before I open
the discussion.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Thank you for what you just said. First, you
noticed the question that I ask at the end of my
paper: no money, there is no money. What will the
state sponsor, given the military investment, and so
on? I think it's a question which is a current one.
Now, speaking of infinity, of this infinite process, my
concern is this one. First, given our project, do we
inscribe it in the horizon of a new community? Do
we have to build a new universal community, or
should we change the axiomatics of this
cosmopolitanism. And from that point of view, I would
say that, without of course wanting to be untrue to the
memory of the Enlightenment, I think that today we
have to rethink cosmopolitanism, given the new
situation. For instance, I'm sure that all the crises that
the international institutions are experiencing now, we
know (I think this is true) that they have, we have to
rethink the concepts, the concepts of state, of
sovereignty, and so on, which are European concepts,
and which are at the center of the constitution of
these international institutions. These international
institutions were foreseen by Kant. In a certain way,
they are Kantian in spirit. So on the one hand, I 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;10-11/</pages>
 would say that there is an infinite perfectibility.
We have to improve. We shouldn't interrupt the work
of these international institutions, the United Nations,
the UNESCO, and so many others. It's something
good and we have to improve them. This is an
infinite process. But at the same time, it's not a
continuous infinite process. We have to try and
displace some concepts which are absolutely essential
to these constitutions. It's not a matter of speculation,
of speculative movement within the academy. What
happens today in Bosnia, in Israel, and in so many
places, compel the states and the nations to transform
their own assumptions. And this is not simply a
continuous progress, but sometimes a break, we can
call it a break, in the concept of state, in the concept
of internationality, in the concept of "citizen of the
world," and so on and so forth. To do this, we need
philosophy. That's why the question of teaching
philosophy is not simply a question for teachers and
pupils. It's a worldwide political question. If the
citizens of all the countries are not learned, some of
them, in philosophy, they won't understand anything to
what's happening, not only in the newspaper, but in
the decisions of the state, the decisions of the
Security Council, and so on and so forth. Even if we
think that we have to <emph type="2">deconstruct</emph> some tradition, at
the same time we have to insist that these traditions
be taught, and taught more than ever. So philosophy
is everywhere, philosophy is everywhere, today more
than ever. And so, in order to avoid the dogmatic
use or exploitation of this philosophy, teaching the
discipline &mdash; that is, strengthening the people
professionally &mdash; is something... is a duty. Now this
question of the place for philosophy, the topos for
philosophy, is a very strange question. For instance, in
the German debate between Kant and Hegel, Schelling,
about Humboldt &mdash; the place of philosophy within the
university. As you know, some of you are, like myself,
interested in this problem of the conflict of faculties.
On the one hand, you have Kant, who says, well,
philosophy is and should be a department, a faculty
&mdash; the lower one, under the theological, medical, and
law school, but at the same time, the only place
where we should be absolutely free to say whatever
we want, provided that we simply speak directly and
don't try to make performatives. You have this view
of philosophy, occupying a circumscribed place,
however privileged it may be. And then you have

<pages>/pp.&nbsp;11-12/</pages>
 Schelling's (I think it's Schelling's) view.
He said, well, the university is philosophical through
and through. We don't need a department of
philosophy; philosophy is everywhere. So is it a choice
between two logics? Is it a choice? I would say no.
Philosophy must be everywhere, is everywhere &mdash; not
only in the university, but on the radio, within the
speeches of the politicians, and so on and so forth. It
<emph type="2">is</emph> everywhere. It is everywhere in the academy. There
is philosophy at work in literature, in physics, and so
on and so forth. Nevertheless, in addition to that, we
should have a specialized training, professional training
for philosophy. Otherwise, this, philosophy everywhere,
could become a terrible dogmatic weapon. So that's a
paradox in the topology of the discipline.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Just very briefly. You speak more benignly
than one would have anticipated of both the two
kinds of philosophy, the analytic American and the
continental. And certainly the problem of where
philosophy is on the menu, and whether it's part of
the agenda of humanistic discourses obviously rests on
the relative hegemony of the analytic, Anglo-American
tradition, which has held power up until now and
probably for some time to come, given the nature of
academic politics in the United States.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
The linguistic hegemony cannot be dissociated
from the hegemony of a type of philosophy.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Exactly. And departmental philosophy is not
only exclusionary, but the single tradition which gets
traced back. But also, of course, it would exclude the
rest of the humanistic discourses. I mean, it's back to
the original notion that philosophy is not one of the
humanistic discourses, but stands apart from them as
the explanatory instrument for taking care of all the
other uses of language. And to that extent, of course,
there's no place around this table for most philosophy
as it is taught in most parts of the United States.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Yes, I agree. Two points, Murray. First, I said
that the hegemony of the Anglo-American is all over
the world, 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;12-13/</pages>
 it is irreversible, something we
shouldn't even try and resist. It's done. Everyone in
the world will have two languages, his own plus
Anglo-American. Then without trying to prevent this,
we have to handle this differently. This is not only a
linguistic phenomenon, because it goes hand in hand
with the fact that today no theoretical work, no
literary work, no philosophical work, can receive a
worldwide legitimation without crossing the States,
without being first legitimized in the States &mdash; we
know that. That's a serious problem. It's not simply a
problem of language. It is also a problem of language,
but it is not simply a problem of language. And then
we also know that in so many cultures, so many
cultures in the world, the hegemony of the analytic
philosophy is obvious. It's obvious in Asia, and it's
obvious in Africa, in many parts of Africa.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
I didn't know this, by the way. You're saying
something I really had no idea about. The
Anglo-American analytic is everywhere?</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
In Scandinavia, even sometimes in Germany.
But among the many problems which link with this
phenomenon, we have the fact that analytic
philosophy has little to do with the humanities.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
That's my point.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
The affinity between philosophy and literature
is between continental philosophy and literature, with a
few exceptions. So the problem of the humanities, of
the humanistic discourse is also this problem &mdash; that
analytic philosophy, if it is a serious problem, it is
because there is also, despite this hegemony, some
decadence.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
But also more defensiveness.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Yes, more defensiveness. But they don't pay
any interest to arts or to literature (with some
exceptions).</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
Well, it's in some respect a situation like in the
sixteenth century, the domination of European thinking
by the Latin language. All had to be translated, all
relevant thoughts had to be 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;13-14/</pages>
 formulated in
Latin. And maybe there will be in the future some
struggles like between the vernacular languages and
the Latin language.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
It's unlikely to happen during our lives. You
mean a new language will... ?</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
There will be no advantage for French or
German maybe, but Chinese or...</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Spanish.</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
Yes, but my point is the following. What could
be seen as an antagonism on the linguistic level as
on the philosophical level, is much more a problem of
internal relationships. For instance, that English has
become a universal language, that really is a danger
for English as a 'natural language.' It is the
domination of spoken and written English by...</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Of <emph type="2">a</emph> <emph type="2">certain</emph> English.</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
Yes, but this lingua franca. And it was one
step in the Latin tradition of Latin language, to
restore a true Latin against the lingua franca, that
Latin spoken by the scholars and others. But on the
philosophical level, there are two interesting problems.
On the one hand, if you try to debate the real
philosophical problems of the worldwide dominating
analytical philosophy (as you, Jacques did it in
<emph type="2">Limited Inc.</emph>) you have to deal with the Vienna circle,
with Wittgenstein, with Kant, and with the continental
tradition as a whole. So you have to bridge the
Channel and to elaborate these technically
encapsulated problems. And on the other side, there
are also tendencies in Anglo-American philosophy to
ask for other roots and for other areas of their own
philosophy. For instance, encouraged by Heidegger,
Stanley Cavell's question of the philosophical impact
of Thoreau.</p>

<p><author><surname>Iser</surname></author>
Given the professionalism of analytic philosophy
those who leave the camp are considered defectors.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;14-15/</pages>
</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
But there are very interesting outlaws, and I
think they are more and more encouraged.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
I agree, I agree.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Yes, the point is that Cavell precisely is
excluded by the high church, but there is a high
church. The important thing is this, that once we have
conceded the tremendous priority in the universities of
the sciences and of technology, we must recognize
that what gives the authority and the power and a
continuing place to analytic philosophy is the fact that
it is what helped unlock the philosophy of science.
Having worked hand in hand with some of the
leading theorists in science, they're more interesting to
the people who count because they keep doing their
work. What they do with respect to us and the fact
that they're not interested in sitting with us or in
dealing with the kind of works that we read, is not
going to bring them down because they have the key
to the door that opens to the palace, and we don't.</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
But that is not a philosophical question, and I
asked for philosophical questions.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
I know. But probably one other point about
ours being the lingua franca:  when you spoke of the
disadvantage that is for us, the biggest disadvantage is
one that we've all talked about, the fact that it creates
a nation of persons who speak one language. Jacques
said everybody around the world is going to speak
two languages, his own and English. And the result is
that here we are trying to discover cross-cultural
relations, and we have an entire country without the
languages to carry out any of them.</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
But that isn't true. You have Hispanics, you
have Chinese &mdash; you have internal linguistic problems,
I think.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
But hardly into the second generation. Pauline
had to learn Chinese in a university, not at home.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;15-16/</pages>
</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
In New York, advertisements are bi-lingual.
Why?</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Yes, but for a first generation.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
I think it's going to change a little. I think
these languages will last a little longer, begin maybe
to last a little longer.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Maybe. It's hard to know. There are so many
political pressures against it.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
Two things. One:  I have an anecdote which
certainly bears out what Jacques was saying about the
imperialism of analytical philosophy. When I was in the
People's Republic of China at the Chinese Academy of
Social Sciences, I was with a delegation to bring news
to the Chinese mainland of the new developments in
many different fields &mdash; political science, business
management, literature (I was the literature person),
and philosophy. The philosophy person was John
Searle. And we all had to give little speeches in the
presence of distinguished scholars from different
institutes of the Chinese Academy of Social Sciences
(David Easton was the political scientist) about our
fields. And Searle told them:  "I have news for you.
We have developed in England and the United States
a definitive method in philosophy which puts an end to
all previous philosophy, which is called logic and
analytical philosophy, and this is now... everybody
recognizes this as the predominant philosophy, and it
needs to be institutionalized very rapidly here in this
large country." And he said this without any irony at
all, and without any sense that there might be any
other possibility...  That's the anecdote. The second
thing is really more on the question. It seemed to me
that in your preliminary remarks and even in your
paper, there is a loose thread that I'd like to ask you
to pick up a little more. You said in your preliminary
remarks, I chose this text of Kant because of the
word <emph type="2">roman</emph> and of the explicit connection between
philosophy and literature. You didn't really go on to
do anything with that, and then when I listened to
you talking about this role of... philosophy is
everywhere, we all have to do philosophy, philosophy
should be taught in the schools, and so on, and then
I thought of the passage from Kant. Obviously 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;16-17/</pages>
 you chose it also because it's not just literature
that uses the word <emph type="2">roman</emph>, with its connotations not
only of the novel, but of the Roman.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
The Roman and the Greek.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
Roman/Greek, that's right. Well, he says in the
passage you quote, "however romanesque, more
precisely exalted, enthusiastic." So "romanesque" and
"exalted, enthusiastic" are somehow related to one
another. Remember that I said I side with Proust and
said it made me comfortable to know that Proust says,
you want to learn about politics, read the <emph type="2">Recherche</emph>.
You now seem to be opposing philosophy and
literature, and I'm interested in having you expand
that relationship just a little bit. Obviously you don't
want to be Kantian about this, but what <emph type="2">is</emph> the
relation for you between philosophy and literature if
it's not the Kantian one? You see the point of my
question. That is to say, it's a serious question.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
I know it, I do.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
Is there any element of the literary in the kind
of philosophy you're saying we all have to learn? And
if so, what? Or is it simply that our concept of
literature, like so many of the other concepts you
named &mdash; translation, all the rest of it, and therefore
the very institution of literature, how we define it &mdash;
is simply a philosophical one, so that not only the
study of literature as a discipline, but even the writing
of literature and the existence of it is simply
philosophical through and through, and in that sense
dominated by these philosophical concepts? You said
you were not an imperialist for the philosophy
department, but it sounded a little bit to me like that.
And it did occur to me at some point in our
discussion to remember that all of us around the table
here are Doctors of Philosophy. We're called "Doctors
of Philosophy" in memory, I take it, of that
Humboldtian university that defined everybody who
gets a graduate degree as a Doctor of Philosophy. I
don't know anything about philosophy, but I have a
Ph.D. I'm not a Doctor of Literature.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;17-18/</pages>
</p>

<p><author><surname>Behler</surname></author>
May I briefly interfere at this point. The
systematic question remains on the table. Just a
historical observation:  when Kant says that he does
not want to engage in a <emph type="2">roman</emph>, he is not referring to
the highest type of literature. "<emph type="2">Roman</emph>," "novel," at that
time, is no poetry at all, it's prose, "<emph type="2">romanesque</emph>,"
something popular. The systematic question remains for
you, Jacques, but on the historical level, Kant tries to
find a middle position between strict speculation in
the strong philosophical sense of the <emph type="2">Critiques</emph> (and he
doesn't do this in the essay) and fiction, mere
invention. This type of philosophy has a thread, and
this thread is of course very interesting.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
It would be as if you would talk today about...
What do you call those novels that everybody reads?
Harlequin romances... <emph type="2">romans</emph>...</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
The difference in French between a romance
and a "<emph type="2">roman</emph>".</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
Nevertheless a lot is at stake, because the
passage here says that if you don't believe in the
Kantian plan of nature  [in which it's natural,
absolutely natural, that there would be a development
towards these international institutions &mdash; if you don't
believe in that, then the only alternative to that is the
Harlequin romance, that is to say, something that's not
only literature, but literature of a base and popular,
corrupted sort. I agree with you &mdash; that's another
reason why it's important, this <emph type="2">roman</emph>...</p>

<p><author><surname>Behler</surname></author>
So there are three levels of discourse at stake.
One is the hard philosophical level, which we are not
discussing here. Then there is a middle level of
philosophy in the sense of world wisdom, which
makes use of reason in an unjustified way. And then,
finally, you have fiction, mere fiction.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Hillis, I gave up answering such an enormous
question a while ago, but I'll try an elliptic answer,
because it's impossible for me to say something short
and clear. Just the elliptic answer would be this one
perhaps:  I think that the concept of literature 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;18-19/</pages>
 is a philosophical concept. At least it's
impossible to build this concept without some
philosophy. Now at the same time, I would say that
literature, some events in literature (I wouldn't speak
of simply all literature), there have been some events
in literature, the ones who have interested me most,
which resist this philosophical concept of literature.
That is, there is some invention or some events, some
happenings, in what one calls "literature" which
constantly undermine or displace the philosophical
stabilized concept, philosophical concept of literature.
So that's why I'm, as a philosopher (quote/unquote),
interested in literature &mdash; not in any literature, but in
this kind of literary displacement, a writing which
displaces the philosophical assumptions about literature
&mdash; now my, let's say, gesture here cannot be simple.
I'm often accused, especially by some American
philosophers, but also German philosophers, accused
of, let's say, reducing philosophy to literature.
Habermas said it publicly without shame that for me
a text by Artaud or Genet and a text by Hegel is
the same thing; it's homogenous. Of course I would
never say such a thing, and I try to respect the
limits in the functioning of what one calls a literary
text and a philosophical text. But at some point, at
some point, I think that since they share their
belonging to a natural language, there are at work
within philosophical &mdash; so-called philosophical &mdash; texts,
texts which are legitimized by the institution, by the
academy <emph type="2">as</emph> philosophical texts &mdash; there are in these
texts some structures which could be considered
literary or which have something to do with literature.
Well, that's what I said the other day. For me there's
no essence of literature, but there is a specific
functioning of it. The same sentence, sometimes the
same philosophical sentence &mdash; <emph type="2">Cogito ergo sum</emph> &mdash;
which in a given context is obviously a philosophical
statement, can become in a different context, in a
different set of statements, a literary, poetic, or
anything else statement. And this, among other things,
because what philosophy shares with literature is its
dependence, the fact that it depends on natural
language. There is no absolute formalization of
philosophical language. That's why the problem of
philosophy and culture, philosophy and natural
language is so important. So I want to be free to
respect the distinction, the rigorous distinction between
philosophy and literature, and at some point to examine

<pages>/pp.&nbsp;19-20/</pages>
 what in literature is philosophical. And there
are a number of points where philosophy is, which can
be not only interpreted as philosophemes, but which
you couldn't understand without a philosophical
tradition. Wordsworth &mdash; you can't read Wordsworth
without knowing a lot of philosophy as such. The
same with Baudelaire, with Mallarme, of course. And
on the other side, there are in philosophical discourse
poetic events, and there are poetic inventions in the
very act of thinking philosophically. So for me it's
very complicated, so I give up really on answering
such a question, at least in so brief a time.</p>

<p><author><surname>Adams</surname></author>
There are philosophers who have written on
Wordsworth who would have been better off without
their philosophy I think.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
Knowing some philosophy doesn't guarantee
that you'll be a good...</p>

<p><author><surname>Adams</surname></author>
Huh uh. And that raised the question of what
we call the philosophical concept of literature. It seems
to me that one of the problems, at least in my
knowledge of the profession of philosophy, is that that
philosophical concept of literature has not changed
much in response to literature's evasion of the
concept. And that, in a nutshell, is one of the
problems that we face in our relation to philosophy
departments. Would you say that was true?</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Yes, I agree with you.</p>

<p><author><surname>Adams</surname></author>
The philosophical concept of literature hasn't
changed much since what Plato said in <emph type="2">The Republic</emph>
about the war between philosophy and literature. And
I think you can see that history continue right into the
analytical school of philosophy.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
I wouldn't say it hasn't changed at all, but
the changes cannot match, of course, those in
literature. Hegel's concept of poetry is not Plato's
concept.</p>

<p><author><surname>Adams</surname></author>
If that is the case, then... I'm not going to
ask you a question it's impossible for you to respond
to.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;20-21/</pages>
</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
But your argument in general is that the
philosophers' concept of any particular phenomenon is
belied by what the phenomenon might do to exceed or
violate it. You complain about their trying to have a
philosophical concept of translation that would apply
to all the different sorts of things that go by this
word. The philosopher's concept of literature, you say,
cannot stand up against the differential character of
what happens, for example, in China, which might not
be fittingly called "literature" at all. So what is the
relation of the concept to the terms?</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
I would be inclined to generalize and say the
same thing for everything, but without implying that a
philosophical concept is something given by Plato and
remaining in place.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Yes.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
There is a history of the philosophical
concepts...</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
But there's always the struggle...</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
... and philosophy tries to readjust itself to
what's going on, to the movement of science, the
movement of literature. So it's a historical... this
adjustment is historical. What happened between Plato
and Hegel's <emph type="2">Aesthetics</emph> is a number of literary... poetic
events, or theatrical... which forced Hegel to readjust
his concepts. So you have to think of this historically.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
But any particular event in any particular
time, you have suggested previously, can never be
sustained by the concept. It must always be
deconstructed.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
What I say in my polemics with Searle that
according to the concept of the concept, what is a
concept...</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
And there is something of that sort in your
concern about our using the word "translation" too
easily, our using the word "literature" too easily, and
the trouble we will get into when we get into other
cultures, which may or may not even have 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;21-22/</pages>
 terms for these things, which might have
conceptions so radically different as not to allow
them.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
That's why, Murray, although I often shout
with saying the opposite, I never speak of "<emph type="2">the</emph>
philosophy" or "<emph type="2">the</emph> philosopher" or metaphysics as a
totality, as a totality. There are, within philosophy and
within metaphysics, breaks, mutations, heterogeneity, and
so on and so forth. So I don't think that there is "<emph type="2">the</emph>"
philosophical concept of something. There is a struggle,
there is a tension. Even within a relatively stabilized
concept, there is a tension at work which continues to
make it work and express itself. So there is no such
thing as "<emph type="2">the</emph> philosophy," even if, for the sake of
convenience sometimes, I say "philosophy." And if I
were to be rigorous, I wouldn't even say "philosophy."</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
You would say "thinking," <emph type="2">denken</emph>.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Still a problem.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Still a problem. I would try to keep a gap
between philosophy and thinking. When the gap is not
the same in German and in French. In German, well,
since Heidegger, we oppose <emph type="2">Philosophie und Denken.
Denken</emph> cannot be reduced to metaphysics or to
philosophy. What Heidegger does with the opposition
between <emph type="2">Denken</emph> and <emph type="2">Philosophie</emph>, or <emph type="2">Denken</emph> and
<emph type="2">danken</emph>, <emph type="2">Denken</emph> and <emph type="2">danken</emph>, doesn't work in French.
So if I say in French "<emph type="2">philosophie et pens&eacute;e</emph>," it's
something different. So I try in my own language to
draw a line, an antithetical line between <emph type="2">philosophie</emph>
and <emph type="2">pens&eacute;e</emph>. But it's not the same line, although I've
been inspired by Heidegger, it's not the same line as
Heidegger's. Of course "philosophy and thinking" is
closer to Heidegger than "<emph type="2">philosophie et pens&eacute;e</emph>."
<emph type="2">Pens&eacute;e</emph> is another regime, semantic regime. But I try
not to, let's say, reduce any kind of thinking or
questioning to philosophy, not even to reduce
philosophy to questioning, the way Heidegger, at
certain points, did.</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
So you ask again the Heideggerian question of
the relationship between philosophy and philosophical

<pages>/pp.&nbsp;22-23/</pages>
 thinking as related to institutions and
<emph type="2">Denken</emph>, thinking, <emph type="2">pens&eacute;e</emph>, that is beyond or at least
not defined by institutions. On the other hand, the
opposition between literature and philosophy means
two historically changing institutions. On the basis of
these institutional limits, you can ask the questions of
<emph type="2">&eacute;criture</emph> in philosophy.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Well, first, when Heidegger paid attention to
the philosophy as an institution, he doesn't mean all
the time the academic institution. There is, of course,
for him some close relationship between some sort of
philosophy, especially the systematic in the narrow
sense of "system," and the academy, and the German
academy. But there is a broader sense of institution,
and in this broad sense philosophy is associated with
an institution, but not necessarily with an academic
institution. Now I wouldn't say, nevertheless, that
thinking as such is free from any institution,
institutional roots. There is no, on the one hand, on
the one side, philosophy or philosophical institutions,
and on the other side, free thinking. No. I think that
thinking is always also compelled by institutional
norms and forms, and displaces them. And sometimes
it's within an institution, within the limits of an
institution that a philosophical or a thinking event may
occur, then displacing the structure of the institution.</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
It's related to institutions, but not defined by
them.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Not exhausted, not exhausted by them. Yes.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Could you speak a little more about one
element in the paper and that you referred to in your
talk? I think you said at one point in your remarks
that you opened with today that Western philosophy
is privileged. I thought you said that Greek or
European philosophy is, in a way, privileged.</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
Could I add to this? You say also that
philosophy is <emph type="2">batarde</emph> in this regard.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Yes. And my statement is a bastard from
that point of view, my statement is. Because I say at
the same time, 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;23-24/</pages>
 you cannot use the word
"philosophy" and refer to philosophy while ignoring its
Greek origin. Otherwise, we would simply treat the
word "philosophy" as a conventional word. So it is
Greek, it has been Greek, which doesn't mean that
philosophy in its history is philosophy only to the
extent that it refers to the Greek origin. Even at the
origin, in its Greek moment, there was already some
hybridization, some grafts, at work, some differential
element. So I think we could, at the same time, recall
the Greek origin, the link that philosophy keeps with
the Greek memory, and nevertheless welcome events
which have totally displaced this Greek memory... 
Egyptian, Jewish, Arabic, and others. And the difficulty
we have, and Heidegger has, in assigning an origin,
whether it's Plato or whoever... This origin, even in
terms of language, in terms of poetics, the way
language was treated, there is no homogeneity, there
is no single origin. And that's why there are events.
...</p>

<p><author><surname>Wang</surname></author>
This is a very interesting discussion. I was a
little confused in the beginning by your conversation,
between the presenter and the chair, about the theory
that philosophy is the right thing to teach, whereas
literature is not for education. But then in the process,
you mentioned something else. I think Pauline will
agree with me that for about two thousand years, the
Chinese educators wouldn't use stories or novels to
teach students because they think that kind writing
would confuse the students. And that's exactly what
you define in the process for us. So the Chinese
educators did perceive and somehow share that idea,
your explanation of Kant's idea about what to teach
to the students and what not to teach. In connection
with this, I do have one question here. I like to use
my own language and ask, do you think philosophy is
an organizer of thought, or is it a generator of
thoughts?</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
It's a terrible question because I would like
not to choose between the two and others, organizing
and producing,... generating. There are structures of,
let's say, speech acts which at the same time, in the
same movement, produce and organize. A
performative, for instance, is something which produces
an event while using, organizing a given, a given
material. Words exist. We have the treasure of
grammar, the treasure of a lexicon. 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;24-25/</pages>
 You
have conventions. All this has to be organized in
form. We have to shape this. So we shape, and at
the same time, we generate something new. So every
event is at the same time... Every new event, every
newness, is at the same time shaping and producing.
So I think if there is such a thing as philosophy, we
could demonstrate that it is a reflection on what is, a
question about what is, and the question and the
reflection is what we call organizing. It shapes, it
comes after the fact. There is being, and we have to
think and to organize our way of apprehending it. But
at the same time, the new experience, the new
approach, the answer to this question is an event. It's
something which produces some new thinking. So I
wouldn't choose between the two. If you look at the
history of philosophy, every philosopher, great
philosopher, thinks or pretends, claims that he is
simply reflecting, recollecting what has happened,
describing... He is describing being. And he answers
the question, what is being? or what is history? The
answer to this question doesn't, in principle doesn't
generate anything. It's just a reflection, a description,
a constative gesture, a theoretical gesture. But at the
same time, it's a praxis which produces a new
structure, a new event, a new language, and it's
something we do all the time, that is, organizing and
generating.</p>

<p><author><surname>Behler</surname></author>
Jacques, a number of participants want to
comment. However, since I'm moderating I want to
establish a line of thought in order to keep everything
nicely together. Since we have discussed your concept
or your notion of philosophy so thoroughly, we want
to know whether you claim that it is not Eurocentric,
that this notion of philosophy propels you beyond the
antithesis Eurocentric/anti-Eurocentric. Is that a correct
understanding?</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Yes, I said two things at the same time,
which means that I'm not sure that there is such a
thing as Europe. Or center of... Europe as a center,
or center of Europe. So in fact what I had in mind
is of course about Europe, about what we call
"centrism" in that case.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;25-26/</pages>
</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
What could be Eurocentric without there being
a Europe, out of a self-deceiving notion that there is a
Europe and that we know what it is, even if we don't.</p>

<p><author><surname>Behler</surname></author>
Yes, but on the other hand, if someone like
Kant or Hegel or Heidegger starts out with this notion
of Greekdom, of what the Greeks are, that is a clear
Eurocentric line, whereas with the multiple use of
origin and beginning you avoid this.</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
I was originally going to ask something that
you've already been asked, which is what does
philosophy name? And I want to ask you a question
which is based on noting what seems to me an
interesting and really productive irony in the
relationship between the description you've given of
philosophy, where you have both a functional and an
institutional history of usage which is hybrid and
multiple, and an attempt to hold together something
like the fact that it is a Greek word. And I want to
relate that to your initial point (which I think is
absolutely right), which is that the world hegemony of
English is not simply a matter of technological power;
it also has to do with the way language works, the
<emph type="2">English</emph> language works, as opposed to the French
language, the historical absence of an academy or any
solely prescriptive institution concerning the language.
And I wanted to sort of ask you something, which is:
It seems to me that the relationship between
prescription and use you've given in your definition of
philosophy could be interestingly related to the relation
between prescription and use in the development and
modification of the English language, and the kind of
flexibility and universalism that the English language
has in relation to, shall we say, the French. And the
reason for the English language's replacing it as
lingua franca, which I take not to be solely historical,
but also to be the question of the way in which
bastardization, graft, and hybridization has proved so
much more successful in English. One other footnote.
In a sense I would say your notion of philosophy is
in that peculiar and paradoxical sense much more
English or Anglo-American than Anglo-American
philosophy, which is philosophy ceasing to be
philosophy because it is becoming expertise.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;26-27/</pages>
</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Two points. I remember in my so-called
debate with Searle, I tried to show him
(unsuccessfully) that he was more of a continental
philosopher than me, that he was more (without
knowing, because I think he hasn't read Rousseau),
that he is more Rousseauian than I am. So that's why
I share Hendrik's point that it's not a matter of
antagonism. We have to cultivate the differences
within each bloc, so to speak. Another point. Perhaps
what I'm doing is more translatable finally, despite a
number of difficulties, translatable into the
Anglo-American culture than it seems. And perhaps
there is something like that which accounts for the
fact that I'm so generously received in this country,
because perhaps there is something which is not in
my language, but in what I'm trying to say,
something which fits...</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
I have two things to say. One is that you
have to look at the very peculiar historical
underpinnings.  (Hillis brought in the <emph type="2">OED</emph>: ) There's
something very interesting in the way philology
develops in the Anglo-American world that is
important there, and also the way literary criticism
and phenomenology is split is funny. But I'm
wondering whether this has something to do with the
question of how you could have a non-abstract
universalism, in a peculiar sense. That is to say, when
I say it's more English, I'm not thinking in terms of
your reception in England and America so much as in
terms of the question of what kind of planetary model
that would imply for a kind of contagious and bastard
philosophy.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
If I had, let's say, a philosophical political
stand in that respect, I would say that I'm of course
attached to a universalism which wouldn't destroy the
idioms. That is, how is it possible to keep the idioms
&mdash; that is, the differences in language &mdash; alive without
giving out the Enlightenment, the universalism, without,
let's say, instrumentalizing the language too much. I
don't think it's possible to de-technologize the
language through and through. I think that <emph type="2">techn&eacute;</emph> is...
even in the most poetic events, there is some <emph type="2">techn&eacute;</emph>
at work, so it's impossible, I would think, impossible
to oppose poetry to technology absolutely. Now,
nevertheless, I would advocate a universalization which
would be an experience of translation respecting the
absolute singularity of the 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;27-28/</pages>
 idioms. In that
case, we would have organization and generation of
new events &mdash; that is, the production of a new
language, of new languages, a new experience of
precisely grafting, hybridization, and production of new
singularities. This implies another concept of
cosmopolitanism, because the eighteenth-century
concept or Kantian concept of cosmopolitanism was a
concept implying a secularization of language, the sort
of transparency of universal language in the abstract
and technical sense. Now I think the experience we
make now of the new nationalisms and the attention
paid to the minorities' differences call for another kind
of cosmopolitanism, taking into account the idioms...</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
In this context, Goethe's latest use of the term
<emph type="2">Weltliteratur</emph> is of special interest. He wrote in a letter
(April 24, 1831) about the translation of his last
botanical writings by the French-Suiss Ferdinand Soret:
"Some main passages, which my friend Soret couldn't
understand in my German, I translated in my French;
he translated them in his own, and so I firmly
believe, they will be more generally intelligible than
probably in German...  These are the immediate
consequences of the general world literature; the
nations will take hold faster of the mutual
advantages." And another example is his appreciation
of the efforts of Victor Cousin and his school; with
respect to them he said to Soret (October 17, 1828): 
"These men are on the way to effect a reconciliation
of France and Germany by creating a language quite
capable to facilitate the communication of ideas
between both nations."And such an intermediary
language is not a destruction of the idioms, but a
bastardization that leads to the creation of new
idioms.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
This is very brief, and really addresses this,
but also it recapitulates Bill Readings' question or way
of putting this. As I understand it, you're proposing
(and you represent Jacques as proposing) that there is
something &mdash; the word "indigenous" is not the word I
want, but let me use it &mdash; within the English language
that predisposes it to serve as lingua franca. What I'm
thinking of is the real flowering of bastard Englishes
with many varieties begins to occur, I think, in a
period after the move toward its 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;28-29/</pages>
 becoming
a lingua franca is established. And I'm wondering
whether we really can think of English as having
peculiar potentials.</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
There's absolutely nothing inherent in it. It
is simply a historical accident concerning the peculiar
relationship of England to Enlightenment and to the
question of the nation-state and the way in which
linguistic policy is pursued. I view this as a historical
accident which produces a bastard language. I think
of America, and I think it was Jefferson (correct me
if I'm wrong) who proposed discussion of the
language to be adopted. They considered the plan
that the language of the United States of America
should be Greek, and this was seriously considered.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
This was so it wouldn't be the language of the
colonizer.</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
Yes, but also it has something to do with
an idea that English gets institutionalized in a way
that allows this flexibility. I am not at any point
arguing that there's an inherent <emph type="2">Geist</emph> in the English
language which makes English more supple and
flexible. I mean, it is also a historical bastard
language in a very straightforward way which gets
invaded early on.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
How pure are the language systems? And
given the multiple imperialisms that we have
flourishing around the world for centuries, whow could
they be?</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
As French gets reinvented, Italian is
invented...</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Yes, that's my point.</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
... and English doesn't, and that's all. I
mean there may well be other languages of which I
am completely unaware. I'm really arguing ...</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Why is there not the multiplicity of
possibilities in other nation-states that have colonial
empires speaking their language?</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;29-30/</pages>
</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
They have these Enlightenment academies
that reinvent their language on rational principles.  If
you have the <emph type="2">Academie Fran&ccedil;aise</emph>, which says if you
say "<emph type="2">le weekend</emph>" you're out.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
But that didn't keep French from being a
lingua franca for centuries after they did that.</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
In a very restricted way.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
I feel like an ant crawling across the enormous
expanse of this question about the relation of literature
and philosophy, and if you just answer three easy
questions, then my mind will be at rest. But it does
follow from further discussions we had where you
spoke of the performative event quality of philosophy
as opposed to its simply descriptive quality. And my
questions are three very specific ones. In those
moments in philosophy that are literary events (you
used that word), are they essential to the philosophy,
or are they excrescences that could be, you know, a
kind of mistake? For a minute Descartes was literary,
and if we're interested in literature we find those...</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Essential, I would say.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
Second question. Are they, those moments,
those literary moments in philosophy, are they any
longer definable by the philosophical concept of
literature which...? You began by saying that the
notion of literature was a philosophical concept. And
the answer is...</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
I would say no.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
The third question, which I'm a little unclear
about, is whether these events, since you're calling
these literary moments "events," and therefore, since
they're language, whether that leads you to say that
literature as an event has something to do with a
speech act, a performative use of language. The
question is whether it's an accident that you speak of
those literary moments in philosophy as events, and
then go on later on in your 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;30-31/</pages>
 discourse, in
answer to the question about whether it's descriptive
or constitutive, to say well, it's an event, it's a speech
act, it's performative. Is theres a relationship between
that aspect of philosophy  and these moments which
you call "literary," but which are not definable by the
philosophical definition of literature, but which might be
events, constitutive, something like that, and in that
sense speech acts or performatives. And I'm not sure
about that. I'm not trying to lead you down some
kind of path.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
If we say "events," it's for many reasons. One
is because they are singular, they occur just once. But
it doesn't mean that they simply occur with no
premises. For instance, the cogito, if you consider the
<emph type="2">cogito ergo sum</emph> as an event, this doesn't prevent you
from knowing that before there is an enormous
history, even in the history of the <emph type="2">cogito</emph>, with Saint
Augustine, and so on and so forth. There is the
history and there is the event which transform the
situation. Now if this event is, in some respects, a
literary one, it doesn't happen just once at the
moment when it is produced. There are many ways in
which one can consider some literariness of the <emph type="2">cogito</emph>.
One is because it's impossible as an event without its
relationship to language, to any language. Then
because if you reconstitute it, then the whole structure
of this event, you have to take into account the <emph type="2">fabula</emph>,
the fiction. So there is an intrinsic fictionality at work
in this <emph type="2">cogito ergo sum</emph>. Now this poeticity has not
been registered or recognized at the moment when it
was produced. That's why it's only a function. It's
much later, perhaps in the twentieth century, that we
read things differently. It's a process. It doesn't mean
that Descartes was a novelist or a poet, but this can
be read today as involving some literariness, some
poeticity. And this is still in the process, in the
collective process, and it's not the signatory who
decides whether he writes literature or he writes
philosophy. That's why I insist on the functionality.
Perhaps it's easier today to read Descartes as a poet
than it was at the time. So it's a matter of a
determined community which constantly re-examines
the literariness or the philosophicity. These are not
essences. There are no natural philosophemes or
natural works of literature. They are functions in the
same languages, the same statements, grammatically
and in their lexicon, can 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;31-32/</pages>
 function here as
everyday language, here as philosophemes, and here
as poems, as poetic sentences. It depends on the
context of the interpretation, of the conventions, the
agreement or disagreement, and it's always a matter
of discussion. Sometimes in this ongoing discussion, in
this process, there are moments of great stabilization.
Everyone agrees that <emph type="2">The Critiques of Pure Reason</emph> is
a major philosophical work, but it may change. Or
there are some works &mdash; Rousseau, for instance,
Rousseau in France &mdash; who is not considered a
philosopher. His name was not on the programs of
the philosophical competitions until two decades ago.
So there are canonizations, canonizations, legitimations,
and it's a process of assigning the functions.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
A good many of our analytical philosopher
colleagues would not view Kant as a philosopher. That
is to say, they would say that there's no reason any
longer to read Kant...</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
And within a single corpus, there are works
that you consider major at some point and minor at
another.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
It's just as a colleague of mine is reported to
have said to a student, "There's no point any longer
studying Flaubert. As far as I'm concerned," she said,
"all of the works of Flaubert could be burned. It
would be no loss."</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
It's the problem of Conrad that you were
mentioning yesterday.</p>

<p><author><surname>Iser</surname></author>
If I may come back for a moment to the notion
of the 'universal' in philosophy. It is not culture-bound,
but a universal in the normative sense of the word.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
That was a reference to Husserl, in fact.</p>

<p><author><surname>Iser</surname></author>
Yes. But is that not also the plight of
philosophy? A universal is not something free-floating,
basically it has to fulfill a function. It is invoked
when something has to be assessed, organized, or
even generated. Thus it becomes entangled in a
particular 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;32-33/</pages>
 situation which may split a
universal into those features that are relevant for the
purpose concerned and those that remain eclipsed.
Does it mean, then, that philosophy turns into a
rescue operation, trying to restore the character of the
universal as something in and of itself? This could well
be a reason for the plight of philosophy as it would
have to adopt a stance outside or beyond the
universal for it to be determined.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
That is, everywhere there is some universality,
some philosophy is...</p>

<p><author><surname>Iser</surname></author>
If philosophy claims to be universal, it is always
engaged in certain things which philosophy is going to
do. And the moment you do any certain operations
which will have repercussions on such a claim. Is
philosophy all-encompassing? Or does philosophy
become self-reflexive as it has to restore its claim of
being universal in view of the fact that it tries to
solve problems, which may not be universal by
nature? Through disentangling itself from the tasks
performed, it seems to elevate itself into its own
subject matter. Should that be the case, then,
universality stands in need of being redefined.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
That is if there's something else too:  that its
claim to a universal is like the sort of thing we're
speaking about with respect to translation; it plays
always against the awareness that its universality does
not cover the particular application you want it to
have. As Jacques was saying, the concept "literature"
cannot contain the initiating events of the next literary
work it comes upon, which is outside the concept, at
least the one that explodes the concept...  Universality
is always conscious of its own inadequacy.</p>

<p><author><surname>Iser</surname></author>
Well, is that the case? I would be inclined to
say that in each of these instances, what claims to be
a universal loses its innocence. Universality may always
be on the verge of losing its innocence, because it is
prone to become functional.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;33-34/</pages>
</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
I think no philosopher would ever dispute the
history of philosophy as trying to constantly correct
itself, adjust itself to new contents without losing its
universality.</p>

<p><author><surname>Iser</surname></author>
True.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
The universality that Rousseau refers to is not
a given universality. He was struggling against the tide
at the time. He would not deny that the philosophical
works, languages, systems belong to some extent. So
they were radically determined. But the philosophical
project as such, the pretensions, the claim,
philosophical claim, is a universal one. So it's in the
name of this claim that constantly philosophy has to
readjust itself to formalization in order to integrate
new contents, new determinations, and so on and so
forth. That's why if we keep Rousseau's example, at
the same time Rousseau was claiming that
phenomenology through reduction, and so on, could
reach the absolute certainty beyond any doubt of a
<emph type="2">cogito</emph> again. This is absolutely universal, immediately
universal, but nevertheless, historical. There is a
transcendental historicity with a transcendental ideal.
So at the same time you would say, well, we have
an absolute ground in the <emph type="2">cogito</emph>, in the <emph type="2">ergo cogito</emph>,
and because of this ground, which is beyond any
doubt, we can build an ideal phenomenological
community with an infinite historicity. In trying to
comprehend, to embrace new contents, new
determinations, new sciences, the progress of sciences
is also infinite, and philosophy should be able to
measure itself against this movement.  I'm not
subscribing to this. But I'm just describing the process.</p>

<p><author><surname>Iser</surname></author>
Sustaining such a claim implies to deconstruct all
the trappings in which universality parades. If so, then,
philosophy claims toward universality, and constantly
getting functionally entangled, produces stretches of
wasteland as it is constantly in negotiation with itself.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Don't think too quickly that I'm on the side
of deconstruction against philosophy. We shouldn't give
up this effort to universality and to try to think what's
happening in science, in politics, and to formalize its
own language, and so on 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;34-35/</pages>
 and so forth.
That's why deconstruction is nothing against
philosophy.</p>

<p><author><surname>Iser</surname></author>
I did not really intend to subject what you had
said to deconstruction. Still, if you look at the current
situation &mdash; especially in Germany &mdash; in which
philosophy is concerned with its own history, you get
another manifestation of how philosophy is always
involved in and tries to cope with situations. And
such an involvement is built into philosophy's claim to
be universal.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Which implies not only an attempt to
integrate new scientific events &mdash; technology, political
events, what happens today with the international
institutions &mdash; we have to build a new role for the
philosophical past.</p>

<p><author><surname>Iser</surname></author>
So the universality would be the changeability of
that.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Changeability...  I think for me, well, Plato is
an example. I think it's something that we have to
read again and again. It's a task... It's as urgent and
necessary as the integration of a new role, new
scientific results, and so on and so forth.</p>

<p><author><surname>Wang</surname></author>
I just have one comment. I think, I always
think poetry is universal. In your discussion about the
importance of the universality of philosophy, I see that
if I just substitute that word "philosophy" with
"poetry," it sounds almost the same.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
I have no objection, except that the way it
exists, it hasn't meant poetry all the time. Although I
understand that today a good philosopher could write
good poetry and vice versa. But I would not like to
simply drop the name philosophy, although I agree
with you that there is no essential difference between
some poetry today and some philosophy. But I think
that each time an event, be it linguistic or not, or a
written event or not, each time an event produces
more universality, more, let's say... opens the way, it
is at the same time philosophical and poetic. Each
time there is a sentence which finally calls for
translation, provokes translation, becomes legible and
attractive and interesting for someone in another 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;35-36/</pages>
 language, in another country, then there is a
something philosophical and poetical occurring at the
same time.</p>

<p><author><surname>Adams</surname></author>
I think, Ching-hsien, you're saying that the
most particular things of poetry are the most
universal.</p>

<p><author><surname>Wang</surname></author>
Are you thinking about particular things like
events, histories?</p>

<p><author><surname>Adams</surname></author>
The recourse to the image, I suppose, is what
I'm talking about. At the expense of turning us to the
vulgar here, I'm going to ask a vulgar question. What
would you do about the relation of philosophy to the
institution, or the departments of philosophy to the
institution?</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
To the institution?</p>

<p><author><surname>Adams</surname></author>
To the university.</p>

<p><author><surname>Behler</surname></author>
He means a particular university.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Some facts to start with, some facts. You
probably... Perhaps you know that I'm considered a
professional philosopher in my own country. I teach
philosophy. I'm institutionally a philosopher.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
We believe you.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
It's a professional definition in France. I'm
invited and appointed here now, I've been here for
seven, eight years. I almost never met a philosopher
in this university. I'm probably partially responsible for
that, but only partially, I would claim. Why? Well,
because I think, and some students tell me that...
sometimes some philosophy students come to me, and
they tell me that when they name, not me, but some
philosophers I'm interested in, such as Nietzsche or
Hegel, the professors simply laugh at him or her and
say, well, this is not philosophy. So you have an
example here of the hegemony of the analytical. Now,
another fact which 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;36-37/</pages>
 is more recent. (Perhaps
sometime I would like to discuss this with you.) I have
some signs this year that something is slightly changed.
It was almost the same at Yale &mdash; not exactly the
same, because at Yale there were some philosophers
with whom I could speak. Well, I would hope that
some philosophy is taught in this university outside
the Department of Philosophy, in English or in Comp.
Lit.  I'm sure I have nothing against the teaching of
analytic philosophy. I would advocate some tolerance
and some variety, more differences.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Hazard can tell you that when he was Dean,
he offered a free very fancy FTE to the Department of
Philosophy if they would hire a continental philosopher.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Changing the reference, I would say this:  (I
have this experience in France)  I am in favor of the
academic freedom and the autonomy of the academic
field, but I know that sometimes, to change something
within the corporation, the intervention of some power
outside frees the situation, is necessary. Sometimes &mdash; I
know that in France &mdash; the current of philosophers is
simply reproducing itself constantly, constantly, and if
there is no intervention from the state, from the state,
or from some who are outside, it will reproduce itself
for centuries without accepting anything new. And I'm
sure that if you don't impose on the philosopher that
they appoint someone totally foreign to their own
school of thought, nothing will change for centuries.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Do you remember at the first day or second
day of our meeting this week you spoke of the
violence of censorship. You spoke of Rushdie, and so
on, and I said at that time that there are other kinds
of censorship that are not so violent, but just as
effective without killing anybody.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
I know that. I've experienced this all my life
in many countries.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;37-38/</pages>
</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
You meant when you spoke of democracy,
and we said, within democracy too, you believe in
freedom within the university, but the university can
legislate itself into a state of censorship.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
In France, for instance, there is what I call
the reproduction. It is perfectly democratic, legal.
There are votes, elections. Nobody's guilty of anything
illegal. It's simply that they elect their disciples, and
the disciples elect their own disciples, and so on and
so forth, and no one comes in.</p>

<p><author><surname>Birus</surname></author>
Like a bad xerox copier.</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
This is based on the complaints of a rather
strange complaint, but an accurate one, which is that
the French universities work as a medieval guild, in a
way. I mean, I think there's a really interesting
difference between the American university and the
French university in terms of the fact that the French
university has never quite had its modernity. I mean,
it's never been modern in the sense that the
American universities have developed. The question of
reproduction for centuries:  If the American philosophy
department doesn't do something, it will disappear. It
will disappear into local expertises...</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
Because of the market too.</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
Except for the technical, the scientific people.</p>

<p><author><surname>Readings</surname></author>
They will disappear away into other things.</p>

<p><author><surname>Adams</surname></author>
There are moves in some philosophy
departments to attach themselves to the sciences.</p>

<p><author><surname>Yu</surname></author>
Cognitive sciences, computer...</p>

<p><author><surname>Adams</surname></author>
... or to the social sciences.  In Washington,
the Philosophy Department reports to the Dean of
Social Sciences.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;38-39/</pages>
</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
And in some ways, the IDP, the
inter-disciplinary program that has attracted the biggest
names at Irvine, is the IDP in the History and
Philosophy of Science, which has a very distinguished
mathematical social scientist and a number of people
from the physical sciences and the philosophy of
science.</p>

<p><author><surname>Adams</surname></author>
Of course this problem potentially exists in
every department, but it seems to me that more's at
stake for the university with respect to the situation of
philosophy vis-a-vis the rest of the institution than
almost any other.</p>

<p><author><surname>Derrida</surname></author>
I described a reproductive mechanism. It is
not simply a mechanism, because the reproduction in
the defensiveness is increased in situations of threat.
That's why, thirty years ago in France, they were
more interested:  because the philosophers didn't feel
threatened by some other philosophers. So it is
because of the structure of the philosophical field that
this reproductive defensiveness ...</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
My son is an analytic philosopher. And an
anecdote goes with that.</p>

<p><author><surname>Miller</surname></author>
If only you'd allowed him to see the film, it
would have been different...</p>

<p><author><surname>Krieger</surname></author>
My anecdote is that when he was doing
philosophy at UCLA, I remember it was at the very
time when Rorty's <emph type="2">Philosophy and the Mirror of
Nature</emph> came out. The bookstore kept buying dozens
upon dozens of copies, and they were being bought
up overnight, being bought up, of course, by all the
philosophy students. UCLA then was a major
philosophy department in America in the analytical
mode. And apparently the tightening up of the
department with respect to its attitude toward its
dogmas (which my son didn't see as dogmas), the
tightening up was, in our conversations, totally evident
to me with every additional copy of the Rorty book
that was sold. That is, what you said about the
closing of ranks and the circling the wagons was
strenuously demonstrated, because the Rorty book was
the first 
<pages>/pp.&nbsp;39-40/</pages>
 institutional awareness that
something was happening, something that they couldn't
control &mdash; and by one of their own, since Rorty made
his early reputation as an analytic philosopher.</p>

<p><author><surname>Behler</surname></author>
The time has come to conclude this last
session and to thank our presenter, Jacques, and also
the two organizers of these interesting sessions, Murray
and Wolfgang. Thank you.</p>

<p content="pages">
<pages>/p.&nbsp;40/</pages>
</p>

</section>

</body>


</article>

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